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What did Jacques Derrida mean by the term 'aporia'?
Anthony Curtis Adler
Teaches Continental PhilosophyAuthor has 1.6K answers and 9.7M answer views1y
An “aporia” is a Greek work, belonging to Aristotle’s philosophical vocabulary. It comes from the verb ἀπορέω, which means to “be at a loss.” An impass, in Aristotle’s sense, refers to situations when philosophers are “at a loss” as to how to proceed. For Aristotle, such aporias are very valuable, since they reveal that a different approach—and different perspective or conceptual frame—is necessary.
While aporias and paradoxes are closely related, they are not the same. A paradox refers to a result of a process of reasoning that is contrary to common sense or received opinion. And while it is often thought that every paradox involves a self-contradictory statement, this is really only one type of paradox, and only pertains to formal logic.
I don’t think that Derrida means something fundamentally different by an “aporia” than Aristotle, even though he has an entire book called “Aporias.” He does, however, attach a different value to aporia, responding to them in a different way. For Aristotle, as for Hegel—on most readings, at least—aporia are to be resolved through obtaining a higher perspective. For Derrida, aporia are not to be overcome but comprehended. And comprehending an aporia means: recognizing the absolute impossibility of its resolution—and hence the impossibility of absolute comprehension. In a similar way, Lyotard speaks of “bearing witness to the differend.”
Derrida’s approach, I would argue, must be situated in the context of phenomenology. The point ultimately is to experience the aporia—and in this way comprehend the aporetic dimension of experience itself.
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